Question #190390

Good morning.


My question is:


Suppose v1; v2;...; vm is linearly independent in V and w ∈ V .


Show that v1; v2; ...; vm; w is linearly independent if and only if w ∉ span(v1; v2; :::; vm).


Please assist.


1
Expert's answer
2021-05-10T14:02:02-0400

Proof:

First suppose v1,v2,....,vmv_1,v_2,....,v_m is linearly independent. Then if wspan(v1,...,vm),\in span(v_1,...,v_m), we can write w as linear combination of v1,v2,....,vmv_1,v_2,....,v_m that is w=a1v1+...+amvmw=a_1v_1+...+a_mv_m


Adding both sides of the equation by -w ,we have


a1v1+....+amvm+(w)=0a_1v_1+....+a_mv_m+(-w)=0

Therefore we can write zero as a1v1+....+amvm+(w)a_1v_1+....+a_mv_m+(-w) , so there exists a1,a2,...am,1,a_1,a_2,...a_m,-1,

not all 0, such that a1v1+....+amvm+(w)=0a_1v_1+....+a_mv_m+(-w)=0 . by the definition of linear dependence, we have v1,...,vm,wv_1,...,v_m,w is linearly dependent, which contradicts our initial assumption. Thus we have wspan(v1,v2,....,vm)w\notin span(v_1,v_2,....,v_m)



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