Answer to Question #190390 in Linear Algebra for Caylin Adams

Question #190390

Good morning.


My question is:


Suppose v1; v2;...; vm is linearly independent in V and w ∈ V .


Show that v1; v2; ...; vm; w is linearly independent if and only if w ∉ span(v1; v2; :::; vm).


Please assist.


1
Expert's answer
2021-05-10T14:02:02-0400

Proof:

First suppose "v_1,v_2,....,v_m" is linearly independent. Then if w"\\in span(v_1,...,v_m)," we can write w as linear combination of "v_1,v_2,....,v_m" that is "w=a_1v_1+...+a_mv_m"


Adding both sides of the equation by -w ,we have


"a_1v_1+....+a_mv_m+(-w)=0"

Therefore we can write zero as "a_1v_1+....+a_mv_m+(-w)" , so there exists "a_1,a_2,...a_m,-1,"

not all 0, such that "a_1v_1+....+a_mv_m+(-w)=0" . by the definition of linear dependence, we have "v_1,...,v_m,w" is linearly dependent, which contradicts our initial assumption. Thus we have "w\\notin span(v_1,v_2,....,v_m)"



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