Question #102653
Show that P1 (x) is orthogonal to [Pn (x)] ^2
on the interval (1,-1)
1
Expert's answer
2020-02-25T11:27:56-0500

We need to prove that P1(x)P_1(x) is orthogonal to (Pn(x))2(P_n(x))^2 on the interval (1,1)(-1,1) \Leftrightarrow 11P1(x)(Pn(x))2dx=0\int\limits_{-1}^{1}P_1(x)(P_n(x))^2dx=0

Proof:

P1(x)=xP_1(x)=x is an odd function on (1,1)(-1,1) .


One of the properties of Legendre polynomials is

Pn(x)=(1)nPn(x)P_n(-x)=(-1)^nP_n(x)

Using this property, we have

(Pn(x))2=((1)nPn(x))2=(1)2n(Pn(x))2=(Pn(x))2(P_n(-x))^2=((-1)^nP_n(x))^2=(-1)^{2n}(P_n(x))^2=(P_n(x))^2

So, (Pn(x))2(P_n(x))^2 is an even function on (1,1)(-1,1)


Therefore, P1(x)(Pn(x))2P_1(x)(P_n(x))^2 is an odd function on (1,1)(-1,1) .


We can use the fact that

f(x)f(x) is odd aaf(x)dx=0\Rightarrow \int\limits_{-a}^{a}f(x)dx=0

for function P1(x)(Pn(x))2P_1(x)(P_n(x))^2 .


P1(x)(Pn(x))2P_1(x)(P_n(x))^2 is odd 11P1(x)(Pn(x))2dx=0\Rightarrow \int\limits_{-1}^{1} P_1(x)(P_n(x))^2 dx=0 .


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