Question #280103

Show that the function defined as 𝑓(𝑥) = { sin 1 𝑥 , 𝑥 ≠ 0 0, 𝑥 = 0 obeys the intermediate value theorem


1
Expert's answer
2021-12-16T12:15:21-0500

The function f(x)f(x) is continuous on (,0)(0,).(-\infin, 0)\cup(0, \infin).

So if aa and bb have the same sign then such cc  exists by the Intermediate Value Theorem (IVT).

If a0b.a\leq0\leq b.  Assume b>0.b>0.

Let nn be a natural number such that 2/b<(2n+1)π2/b <(2n+1)\pi so that the interval J=[2(2n+3)π,2(2n+1)π]J=[\dfrac{2}{(2n+3)\pi},\dfrac{2}{(2n+1)\pi}] is contained in [0,b].[0,b].

The function f(x)=sin(1/x)f(x) =\sin (1/x) is continuous on JJ and takes on the values 11 and 1−1 at the endpoints of J.J.

Since 1f(x)1,−1 ≤ f(x) ≤ 1, the Intermediate Value Theorem applied to ff on JJ implies that given any yy such that 1<y<1,−1 < y < 1, there is cc in JJ such that f(c)=y.f(c) = y.

The case a<0a<0 is similar.


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