Answer to Question #114852 in Differential Equations for Sheela John

Question #114852
Solve the following
z(p^2+q^2)+px+qy=0
1
Expert's answer
2020-05-19T16:09:50-0400

Given (p2+q2)z+px+qy=0(p^2+q^2)z+px+qy = 0 _______________________(1)

Let f=(p2+q2)z+px+qyf = (p^2+q^2)z+px+qy

Using Charpit's Method:

dxfp=dyfq=dzpfpqfq=dpfx+pfz=dqfy+qfz\frac{dx}{-\frac{\partial f}{\partial p}} = \frac{dy}{-\frac{\partial f}{\partial q}} = \frac{dz}{-p\frac{\partial f}{\partial p}-q\frac{\partial f}{\partial q}} = \frac{dp}{\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}+p\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}} = \frac{dq}{\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}+q\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}}

From last two factor, we get

dpp+p(p2+q2)=dqq+q(p2+q2)\frac{dp}{p+p(p^2+q^2)} = \frac{dq}{q+q(p^2+q^2)}     dpp=dqq\implies \frac{dp}{p} = \frac{dq}{q}

So by integrating, we get log(p)=log(q)log(a)    q=aplog(p) = log(q) - log(a) \implies q = ap.

By putting value of qq in (1), we get

p2(1+a2)z+px+apy=0    p(1+a2)z+(x+ay)=0    p=x+ay(1+a2)z and q=a(x+ay)(1+a2)zp^2(1+a^2)z + px+apy = 0 \\ \implies p (1+a^2)z + (x+ay) = 0 \\ \implies p = -\frac{x+ay}{(1+a^2)z} \ and \ q = -\frac{a(x+ay)}{(1+a^2)z}.

Finally, we have to solve: dz=pdx+qdydz = pdx+qdy

dz=x+ay(1+a2)zdxa(x+ay)(1+a2)zdydz = -\frac{x+ay}{(1+a^2)z} dx -\frac{a(x+ay)}{(1+a^2)z} dy

    (1+a2)zdz=xdxa(ydx+xdy)a2ydy\implies (1+a^2)zdz = -xdx - a(ydx+xdy) -a^2 ydy

So by integrating, we get

(1+a2)z22=x22axya2y22(1+a^2)\frac{z^2}{2} = -\frac{x^2}{2} - axy -a^2 \frac{y^2}{2}

    (1+a2)z2=x22axya2y2\implies (1+a^2)z^2 = -x^2 - 2axy -a^2 y^2 is the solution of given differential equation.


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