"\\left(\\sum\\limits_{n=0}^{\\infty}\\frac{x^n}{n!}\\right)^2=\\left(\\sum\\limits_{n=0}^{\\infty}\\frac{x^n}{n!}\\right)\\left(\\sum\\limits_{m=0}^{\\infty}\\frac{x^m}{m!}\\right)=\\sum\\limits_{k=0}^{\\infty}\\sum\\limits_{\\stackrel{m,n}{m+n=k}}\\frac{x^n}{n!}\\frac{x^m}{m!}="
"=\\sum\\limits_{k=0}^{\\infty}\\sum\\limits_{n=0}^k\\frac{x^n}{n!}\\frac{x^{k-n}}{(k-n)!}=\\sum\\limits_{k=0}^{\\infty}\\left(\\sum\\limits_{n=0}^k\\frac{1}{n!}\\frac{1}{(k-n)!}\\right)x^k="
"=\\sum\\limits_{k=0}^{\\infty}\\left(\\sum\\limits_{n=0}^k1^n\\binom{k}{n}1^{k-n}\\right)\\frac{x^k}{k!}=\\sum\\limits_{k=0}^{\\infty}(1+1)^k\\frac{x^k}{k!}=\\sum\\limits_{k=0}^{\\infty}\\frac{(2x)^k}{k!}"
Comments
Dear 1805040444b, we have already solved the question and the answer has already been published.
I just have a doubt that in question I have mentioned it as 2x^n, but in the answer, it is taken as only x^n. So please if you could recheck the answer and question. I would like a change in the answer before 15 November. Thank you Regards
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