Show that if ππβππ β 0, then the function π(π₯)=ππ₯+πππ₯+π is one-to-one and find its inverse.
If ad-bc=0 then:
Β a/c = b/d
y = a/c = b/d
So, y is a constant and is not one-to-one.
Finding the inverse function:
Let y = f(x) = (ax+b) / (cx+d)
So y (cx+d) = ax+b
So cxy + dy = ax+b
So cxy - ax = b - dy
So x (cy - a) = b - dy
So x = (b - dy) / (cy - a)
But x = f-1(y)
So f-1(y) = (b - dy) / (cy - a)
So f-1(x) = (b - dx) / (cx - a)
The fact that we have managed to find the inverse function means that f is one-one.
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