Initial investment =16000
cash flow in year 1 = 8000
cash flow in year 2 = 7000
cash flow in year 3 = 6000
0=NPV= t=0∑T(1+IRR)tct
Substitutes the values in the above equation
0=−(1+IRR)016000+(1+IRR)18000+(1+IRR)27000+(1+IRR)38000
Using the plug and chug approach;
we can assume IRR=20%=0.2
so the equation becomes
0=−(1+0.2)016000+(1+0.2)18000+(1+0.2)27000+(1+0.2)38000
0=−16000+6666.67+4861.111+3472.222−1000
Hence as the RHS is negative we will decrease the value of IRR.
let us use IRR = 15%;
the equation becomes
0=−(1.15)016000+(1.15)18000+(1.15)27000+(1.15)38000
0=−16000+6956.52+5293.00+3945.09=194.61
Now the RHS is positive so we will increase IRR.
Let us use IRR=15.7%
0=−(1.157)016000+(1.157)18000+(1.157)27000+(1.157)38000
0=−16000+6914.43+5229.15+3873.92=17.50
So we can conclude IRR=15.7%
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