Answer to Question #155505 in Physics for lailani

Question #155505

The wave function of a quantum particle of mass m is πœ“ (π‘₯) = 𝐴 cos(π‘˜π‘₯) + 𝐡 sin(π‘˜π‘₯) where 𝐴, 𝐡 π‘Žπ‘›π‘‘ π‘˜ are constants. (a) Assuming the particle is free (π‘ˆ = 0), show that πœ“ (π‘₯) is a solution of the π‘†π‘β„Žπ‘ŸΓΆπ‘‘π‘–π‘›π‘”π‘’π‘Ÿ equation. (b) Find the corresponding energy E of the particle.


1
Expert's answer
2021-01-17T14:45:09-0500

The wave function of a quantum particle satisfies the Schrodinger equation

"-\\frac{\\hbar^2}{2m}\\frac{d^2\\psi(x)}{dx^2}+U(x)\\psi(x)=E\\psi(x)"

In the case of free particle

"-\\frac{\\hbar^2}{2m}\\frac{d^2\\psi(x)}{dx^2}=E\\psi(x)""\\frac{d^2\\psi(x)}{dx^2}=\\frac{d^2}{dx^2}\\left(A\\cos(kx)+B\\sin(kx)\\right)\\\\\n=-k^2\\left(A\\cos(kx)+B\\sin(kx)\\right)=-k^2\\psi(x)"

Hence, the "\\psi(x)" is a solution of the Schrodinger equation if


"E=\\frac{\\hbar^2 k^2}{2m}"

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