Question #170281

Let fn(x) =1/(1+n2x2) if 0 less than or equal to x less than or equal to 1,n=1,2,........ Prove that {fn} converges point wise ,but not uniformly on [0,1] Is term by term integration permissible?


Expert's answer

Here 

limn→∞fn(x)=0,∀xlim_{n\rightarrow \infty} f_n(x)=0, \forall x


Now 11+n2x2\dfrac{1}{1+n^2x^2} attains maximum value 12 at x=1n\dfrac{1}{2} \text{ at } x=\dfrac{1}{n}


 tending to 0 as n→∞.n\rightarrow \infty.


Let us take the interval [0,1] containg 0.


Thus

 Mn=Supx∈[a,b]∣fn(x)−f(x)∣M_n=\underset {x\in [a,b]}{Sup}|f_n(x)-f(x)|


     =Supx∈[a,b]∣11+n2x2∣= \underset{x\in [a,b]}{Sup}|\dfrac{1}{1+n^2x^2}|


     =12=\dfrac{1}{2} Which does not tends to zero as n→∞.n\rightarrow \infty.


 Hence The sequence is not uniformly convergent in interval [0,1].


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