Question #169777

Show that the sequence {š‘“š‘›} where š‘“š‘›(š‘„) = š‘›š‘„(1 āˆ’ š‘„)

š‘› does not converge uniformly on [0, 1].


Expert's answer

Show that the sequence {š‘“š‘›} where š‘“š‘›(š‘„) = š‘›š‘„(1 āˆ’ š‘„)š‘› 

does not converge uniformly on [0, 1].

Solution. Find the limit function f(x)=lim⁔nā†’āˆžfn(x)=0,f(x)=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f_n(x)=0, where lim⁔nā†’āˆžnx(1āˆ’x)n=lim⁔nā†’āˆžnx(1āˆ’x)āˆ’n=[āˆžāˆž]=āˆ’lim⁔nā†’āˆžx(1āˆ’x)nln⁔(1āˆ’x)=0\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}nx(1-x)^n=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{nx}{(1-x)^{-n}}=[\frac{\infty}{\infty}]=-\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\frac{x(1-x)^{n}}{\ln(1-x)}=0

is found by Lopital-Bernoulli rule. According to the criterion of uniform

convergence, functional sequence fn(x)=nx(1āˆ’x)nf_n(x)=nx(1-x)^n does not

converge uniformly on [0,1]. Really, lim⁔nā†’āˆžsup⁔0≤x≤1∣f(x)āˆ’fn(x)∣=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sup\limits_{0\le x\le 1}|f(x)-f_n(x)|=

lim⁔nā†’āˆžsup⁔0≤x≤1(nx(1āˆ’x)n)=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}\sup\limits_{0\le x\le 1}(nx(1-x)^n)= lim⁔nā†’āˆž(1āˆ’1n+1)n+1=1e≠0.\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}(1-\frac{1}{n+1})^{n+1}=\frac{1}{e}\ne 0.

Answer: fn(x)=nx(1āˆ’x)nf_n(x)=nx(1-x)^n does not converge uniformly on [0,1].


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