Lemma: Arbitrary union of open set is open set.
Proof:
Let fix "I=\\{1,2,3...\\}" and denote an open set "A_i" for each "i \\in I" . Now we will show that
"U=\\cup_{i=1}^{\\infty} A_i"is open. Consider any arbitrary "p \\in U \\implies \\exist" at least one "A_j" such that "p \\in A_j" which implies that there exist an open ball of radius "r_p" such that "B(p,r_p) \\subset A_j" (Since, by our hypothesis every "A_i" is open "\\forall i\\in I" ,hence, "A_j" is open for some "i=j \\in I" .)which implies that
"B(p,r_p) \\subset \\cup_{i=1}^{\\infty}A_i \\\\\n\\implies B(p,r_p) \\subset U"Thus, "p" is interior point of "U" and as "p" is arbitrary, therefore all points of "U" are interior points .Hence "U" is open.
Let us denote "A=(a,b) \\: \\& S=[a,b]" open and closed intervals respectively.
Claim: "A" is open set in "\\mathbb{R}"
Proof:
Let, "\\forall q \\in A" , "B(q,r_q)" is a open ball centered at "q" of radius "r_q >0" , Thus, clearly
Therefore, from the above Lemma, implies "A" is open.
Now, consider "B'=\\mathbb{R} \\backslash B" is the complement of "B" ,thus if we prove that "B'" is open then "B" is a closed set in "\\mathbb{R}" .
Clearly, "B'=(- \\infty,a) \\cup (b,\\infty)" ,therefore again from the above Lemma "B'" is open (since, "(-\\infty,a) \\: \\& (b,\\infty)" are both open intervals).Hence, we are done.
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