Consider the relation ~ in R^2 given by (x1,X2)~ (y1,y2) if x1x2~y1y2=1. Check if ~ is an equivalence relation
On the set "\\R^2"
From the definition (x1, y1) ∼ (x2, y2) if x1y1 = x2y2. Showing that ∼ is an equivalence
relation,
Solution: For any (a, b) ∈ "\\ R^2"
, we have (a, b) ∼ (a, b) since ab = ab, which shows
that ∼ is reflexive. If (a, b) ∼ (c, d), then ab = cd, and so cd = ab, which implies
that (c, d) ∼ (a, b), and so ∼ is symmetric. If (a, b) ∼ (c, d) and (c, d) ∼ (e, f), then
ab = cd and cd = ef. The transitive law for equality implies that ab = ef, and
therefore (a, b) ∼ (e, f), so ∼ is transitive. We conclude that ∼ is an equivalence
relation.
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