Determine whether each of the function from π to Z is one to one
(a) π(π) = π β 1
(b) π(π) = πΒ² + 1
(a) For any "m\\in\\mathbb{Z}" the equation "f(n)=n-1=m" has a unique solution: "n=m+1". This means that the function "f(n)" is surjective and injective (one-to-one), and it's inverse is "f^{-1}(m)=m+1" .
(b) For any "n\\in\\mathbb{Z}" "f(n)=f(-n)=n^2+1". Thus, different values of argument may give the same result. Therefore, the function "f(n)" is not one-to-one.
Answer. (a) yes; (b) no.
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