Question

 Let f be the function from {a, b, c} to {1, 2, 3} such that f(a) = 2, f(b) = 3 and

f(c) = 1. Is f invertible, and if it is, what is it’s inverse?

Answer 1

Since function f is a bijection, then it is invertible. To find its invertion we should swap parameter value and function value, so

$f^{-1}(2)=a$

$f^{-1}(3)=b$

$f^{-1}(1)=c$