Question #227437

Prove that (a ∧ (b → ¬a)) → ¬b is a tautology.


1
Expert's answer
2021-08-20T09:52:06-0400

(a(b¬a))¬b(a(¬b¬a))¬b((a¬b)(a¬a))¬b((a¬b)F)¬b(a¬b)¬b(a ∧ (b → ¬a)) → ¬b \\\equiv (a ∧ (¬b∨ ¬a)) → ¬b \\\equiv ((a ∧ ¬b)∨(a ∧¬a)) → ¬b \\\equiv ((a ∧ ¬b)∨F) → ¬b \\\equiv (a ∧¬b) → ¬b

¬(a¬b)¬b(¬ab)¬b¬a(b¬b)¬aTT\\\equiv ¬(a ∧¬b) ∨ ¬b \\\equiv (¬a ∨b) ∨ ¬b \\\equiv ¬a ∨ (b ∨¬b) \\\equiv ¬a ∨ T \\\equiv T

Thus, it is a tautology.

Hence, proved.


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