Question #175381

Let f: Z®Z be such that f(x) = x +1.

Is f invertible? and if it is, what is its inverse?


Expert's answer

1) The map ff is invertible if and only if ff is bijective if and only if ff is surjective and injective.

ff is surjective because ∀y∈Z∃x∈Z:f(x)=x+1=y(x=y−1)\forall y \in \mathbb{Z} \exists x \in \mathbb{Z}: f(x) = x + 1 = y (x = y - 1)

ff is injective because ∀x1∈Z,∀x2∈Z,x1≠x2\forall x_1 \in \mathbb{Z}, \forall x_2 \in \mathbb{Z}, x_1 \neq x_2f(x1)=x1+1≠x2+1=f(x2)f(x_1) = x_1 + 1 \neq x_2 + 1 = f(x_2)

Thus, ff is invertible.

2) The map f−1:Z→Zf ^{-1}: \mathbb{Z} \rightarrow \mathbb{Z} is inverse to ff if f−1f=ff−1=eZf^{-1} f = f f^{-1} = e_{\mathbb{Z}} , where eZe_{\mathbb{Z}} is the identical map Z→Z\mathbb{Z} \rightarrow \mathbb{Z} .

f−1(y)=y−1f^{-1}(y) = y - 1 because f−1f(x)=(x+1)−1=x==(x−1)+1=ff−1(x)f^{-1}f(x) = (x + 1) - 1 = x = \\ = (x - 1) + 1 = ff^{-1}(x)


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