Answer to Question #205782 in Differential Equations for kaviya

Question #205782

Form the PDE by eliminating the arbitrary function from 𝑓 ( π‘₯βˆ’π‘¦ π‘¦βˆ’π‘§ , π‘₯𝑦 + 𝑦𝑧 + 𝑧π‘₯) = 0.


1
Expert's answer
2021-06-15T13:46:47-0400

"\ud835\udc53 ( \\frac{x-y}{y-z}, \ud835\udc65\ud835\udc66 + \ud835\udc66\ud835\udc67 + \ud835\udc67\ud835\udc65) = 0\\\\\nlet\\space u=\\frac{x-y}{y-z}, v=\ud835\udc65\ud835\udc66 + \ud835\udc66\ud835\udc67 + \ud835\udc67\ud835\udc65\\\\\nTherefore, f(u,v)=0\\\\\nu_x=\\frac{1}{y-z}, \\\\u_y=\\frac{-y+z-xq-yq}{(y-z)^2},\\\\ v_x=x+p,\\\\v_y=x+q\\\\\nNow,\\\\\nf_x=f_u.u_x+f_v.v_x=0\\\\\n0=f_u.(\\frac{1}{y-z})\n+f_v.(x+p)\\\\\nf_u.(\\frac{1}{y-z})=-f_v.(x+p)\n-----(1)\\\\\nf_y=f_u.u_y+f_v.v_y=0\\\\\n0=f_u.(\\frac{-y+z-xq-yq}{(y-z)^2})\n+f_v.(x+q)\\\\\nf_u.(\\frac{-y+z-xq-yq}{(y-z)^2})=-f_v.(x+q)--(2)\n\\\\\n\\text{Divide equation 1 by 2, we get,}\\\\\n\\frac{\\frac{1}{y-z}}{\\frac{-y+z-xq-yq}{(y-z)^2}}=\\frac{x+p}{x+q}\\\\\n\\implies \\frac{y-z}{-y+z-xq-yq\n}=\\frac{x+p}{x+q}\\\\\n\\text{This is the required solution.}"


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