Question #315592

Suppose š‘“ is odd and differentiable everywhere. Prove that for every positive



number š‘, there exists a number š‘ in (āˆ’š‘, š‘) such that š‘“ā€²(š‘) = š‘“(š‘)/š‘.

Expert's answer

ANSWER.

The function ff is differentiable everywhere, hence ff is continuous everywhere.Let b>0b>0 , so ff is differentiable on a closed interval [āˆ’b,b][-b,b] ( hence ff is continuous on [āˆ’b,b][-b,b] ). Then , by Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem , there exists a point c∈(āˆ’b,b)c\in(-b,b) , such that

f(b)āˆ’f(āˆ’b)=f′(c)ā‹…[bāˆ’(āˆ’b)]=2bā‹…f′(c)f(b)-f(-b)=f'(c)\cdot[b-(-b)]=2b\cdot f'(c) . (1)

Since ff is odd, so f(āˆ’b)=āˆ’f(b)f(-b)=-f(b) or f(b)āˆ’f(āˆ’b)=2f(b).f(b)-f(-b)=2f(b). From (1) we get

2f(b)=2bā‹…f′(c).2f(b)=2b\cdot f'(c).

Therefore, for every b>0b>0 there exists c∈(āˆ’b,b)c\in(-b,b) , such that

f′(c)=f(b)bf'(c)=\frac{f(b)}{b} .


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