Answer to Question #252680 in Calculus for saliha

Question #252680

Let the 𝒇(𝒙, π’š) = { π’„π’π’”π’š. π’”π’Šπ’π’™, 𝒙 β‰  𝟎 π’„π’π’”π’š, 𝒙 = 𝟎 }. Is 𝒇(𝒙, π’š) continues at (𝟎, 𝟎)? Is 𝒇(𝒙, π’š) continues everywhere?


1
Expert's answer
2022-01-17T18:00:08-0500

The function has the form: "f(x,y)=cos\\,y\\,\\,sin\\,x,\\,\\,x\\neq0" and "f(x,y)=cos\\,y,\\,\\, x=0". Set "y=0"Then, "f(x,y)=1" at "x=0,y=0" and "f(x,y)=sin\\,x" if "x\\neq0". But "sin\\,x" approaches 0 as "x" tends to .Thus, the function is not continuous at "x=0,y=0."


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