Question #237902

Unit 1 Review:


3) Using the definition of an inverse, explain why f(x) and g(x) inverses of one another?

Why or why not?


Expert's answer

They are not inverses of one another. For them to be, then f(g(x))=g(f(x))=xf(g(x))=g(f(x))=x


But f(x)=32x+1 and g(x)=log⁡(x−1)f(g(x))=x2−2x+2≠xg(f(x))=2x≠xHence they are not inverses of one anotherf(x)=3^{2x} +1 \text{ and } g(x)=\log{(x-1)}\\ f(g(x))=x^2-2x+2\neq x\\ g(f(x))=2x\neq x\\ \text{Hence they are not inverses of one another}


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