Find the value of C in the rolle's theorem, where f(x) =cos x and (-pie/2)<C<(pie/2).
We have "f(x)=cosx" .
Since cosine function is continuous and differentiable everywhere.
Therefore "f(x)" is continuous on "[-\\frac{\\pi}{2},\\frac{\\pi}{2}]" and differentiable on "(-\\frac{\\pi}{2},\\frac{\\pi}{2})" .
Also , "f(-\\frac{\\pi}{2})=cos (-\\frac{\\pi}{2})=0" and "f(\\frac{\\pi}{2})=cos (\\frac{\\pi}{2})=0"
"\\therefore f(-\\frac{\\pi}{2})=f(\\frac{\\pi}{2})" .
Thus all the conditions of Rolle's theorem are satisfied.
Then there exists at least one point "C\\isin (-\\frac{\\pi}{2},\\frac{\\pi}{2})" for which "f'(C)=0" .
Now "f'(C)=0\\implies-sinC=0"
"\\implies C=0"
Hence the value of the "C" is .
Comments
Leave a comment