Question #164882

Let D be an integral domain. Then prove that there exists a 

field F that contains a subring isomorphic to D.


1
Expert's answer
2021-02-24T06:09:38-0500

Solution:

Proof:

Let a, b ∈ D with b\ne 0.

Since E is a field, b1b^{-1} ∈ E.

Thus define the function φ : F → E as φ(a, b) = ab1ab^{−1} .

Here we show that φ is well defined, so suppose (a, b),(a'b') ∈ F such that (a, b) = (a'b'). (Note that b, b'\ne 0.)

Then by the definition of equivalence classes in the field of quotients, we have ab' = ba' ⇒ ab1ab^{−1} = ab1a'b'^{−1} ⇒ φ((a, b)) = φ((a'b' )).

Hence φ is well-defined.

Next, we show that φ preserves addition and multiplication.

Let (a, b),(c, d) ∈ F (b, d '\ne0).

Then φ((a, b)+(c, d)) = φ((ad+bc, bd)) = (ad+bc)(d1b1d^{-1}b^{-1} ) = add1b1+bcd1b1=ab1+cd1add^{−1} b^{-1}+bcd^{−1} b^{−1} = ab^{−1}+cd^{−1} = φ((a, b))+φ((c, d)) and φ((a, b)(c, d)) = φ((ac, bd)) = acd1b1=ab1cd1acd^{−1} b ^{−1} = ab^{−1} cd^{−1} = φ((a, b))φ((c, d))

Thus φ preserves the operations and is a homomorphism.

Note that φ : F → φ(F) is onto by definition.

Next, we show that φ is one-to-one. Suppose that φ((a, b)) = φ((c, d)). Then ab1=cd1ab^{−1} = cd^{−1} which implies ad = bc.

Hence (a, b) = (c, d) by the definition of equivalence classes in the field of quotients and therefore φ is one-to-one. Since φ is a bijection, φ is an isomorphism.

We know that φ(F) is a field by its construction.

φ(F) is an integral domain (D) plus the inverses of the elements of D. Therefore we have a subfield of E, specifically φ(F) that is isomorphic to F.

Hence, proved.


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