Answer to Question #307687 in Discrete Mathematics for Saphira

Question #307687

Show that ¬p →(q → r) and q → (p V r) are logically equivalent.





1
Expert's answer
2022-03-08T21:39:53-0500

Solution


To show that "\u00acp \u2192(q \u2192 r)" and "q \u2192 (p \u2228 r)" are logically equivalent, the truth table for both "\u00acp \u2192(q \u2192 r)" and "q \u2192 (p \u2228 r)" is shown below.








We can see from both the tables,


"\u00acp \u2192(q \u2192 r)" and "q \u2192 (p \u2228 r)" are logically equivalent.






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