Question #300002

 Show that ∃xP(x) ∧ ∃xQ(x) and ∃x(P(x) ∧ Q(x)) are not logically equivalent.


1
Expert's answer
2022-02-24T11:05:16-0500

Let us show that xP(x)xQ(x)∃xP(x) ∧ ∃xQ(x) and x(P(x)Q(x))∃x(P(x) ∧ Q(x)) are not logically equivalent.

Let P(x)=x>0"P(x)=``x>0" and Q(x)=x<0"Q(x)=``x<0", where the domain of xx is the set of real numbers.

Then xP(x)∃xP(x) is true and xQ(x)∃xQ(x) is true, and hence xP(x)xQ(x)∃xP(x) ∧ ∃xQ(x) is true.

On the other hand the statement x(P(x)Q(x))=x(x>0x<0)∃x(P(x) ∧ Q(x)) =∃x(x>0 ∧ x<0) is false.

Therefore, xP(x)xQ(x)∃xP(x) ∧ ∃xQ(x) and x(P(x)Q(x))∃x(P(x) ∧ Q(x)) are not logically equivalent.


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