Answer to Question #300001 in Discrete Mathematics for shahana

Question #300001

 Show that ∃x(P(x) ∨ Q(x)) and ∃xP(x) ∨ ∃xQ(x) are logically equivalent.


1
Expert's answer
2022-02-24T05:44:11-0500

Let us show that "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" and "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" are logically equivalent. Denote by "D" the domain of "x."


Let the value of "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" is true. Then "P(x_0) \u2228 Q(x_0)" is true for some "x_0\\in D." Therefore, "P(x_0)" is true or "Q(x_0)" is true. It follows that "\u2203xP(x)" is true or "\u2203xQ(x)" is true. We conclude that "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" is also true.


Let the value of "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" is true. It follows that "\u2203xP(x)" is true or "\u2203xQ(x)" is true. Therefore, "P(x_0)" is true for some "x_0\\in D" or "Q(y_0)" is true for some "y_0\\in D." Then "P(x_0) \u2228 Q(x_0)" is true or "P(y_0) \u2228 Q(y_0)" is true. We conclude that "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" is also true.


Consequntly, "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" is true if and only if "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" is true, and hence "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" and "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" are logically equivalent.



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