Show that ∃x(P(x) ∨ Q(x)) and ∃xP(x) ∨ ∃xQ(x) are logically equivalent.
Let us show that "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" and "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" are logically equivalent. Denote by "D" the domain of "x."
Let the value of "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" is true. Then "P(x_0) \u2228 Q(x_0)" is true for some "x_0\\in D." Therefore, "P(x_0)" is true or "Q(x_0)" is true. It follows that "\u2203xP(x)" is true or "\u2203xQ(x)" is true. We conclude that "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" is also true.
Let the value of "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" is true. It follows that "\u2203xP(x)" is true or "\u2203xQ(x)" is true. Therefore, "P(x_0)" is true for some "x_0\\in D" or "Q(y_0)" is true for some "y_0\\in D." Then "P(x_0) \u2228 Q(x_0)" is true or "P(y_0) \u2228 Q(y_0)" is true. We conclude that "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" is also true.
Consequntly, "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" is true if and only if "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" is true, and hence "\u2203x(P(x) \u2228 Q(x))" and "\u2203xP(x) \u2228 \u2203xQ(x)" are logically equivalent.
Comments
Leave a comment