Let ππ(ππ) be the proposition that 1(1!) + 2(2!) + 3(3!) + β―+ ππ(ππ!) = (ππ+ 1)! β1. Prove by induction that ππ(ππ) is true for all ππβ₯1.
Let be the proposition that
BASIS STEP:
is true, because
INDUCTIVE STEP:
For the inductive hypothesis we assume that holds for an arbitrary
positive integer That is, we assume that
Under this assumption, it must be shown that is true, namely, that
When we add to both sides of the equation in we obtain
This last equation shows that is true under the assumption that is true. This completes the inductive step.
We have completed the basis step and the inductive step, so by mathematical induction we know that is true for all positive integers
That is, we have proven that
for all positive integers
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