Verify that π¦1(π₯) = 1 and π¦2(π₯) = π₯^(1/2) are solutions of the differential equationΒ π¦π¦β²β² + (π¦β²)^2 = 0 for π₯ > 0. Then show that π¦ = π1 + π2π₯^(1/2) is not, in general, aΒ solution to the equation. Explain why this does not contradict superposition principle.
Compute derivatives of "y_1(x)" : "(y_1(x))'=0", "(y_1(x))''=0." Thus, we get: "y_1(x)(y_1(x))''+(y_1(x)')^2=0". Compute derivatives of "y_2(x)": "(y_2(x))'=\\frac12x^{-\\frac12}", "(y_2(x))''=-\\frac14x^{-\\frac32}". We get: "y_2(x)(y_2(x))''+(y_2(x)')^2=0".
Consider the function "y=c_1+c_2x^{\\frac12}". Compute the derivatives: "y'=\\frac12c_2x^{-\\frac12}", "y''=-\\frac14c_2x^{-\\frac32}". Consider the expression: "y(x)(y(x))''+(y')^2=-\\frac14c_1c_2x^{-\\frac32}-\\frac14c_2^2x^{-1}+\\frac14c_2^2x^{-1}=-\\frac14c_1c_2x^{-\\frac32}"
As we can see, "y(x)" is a solution if and only if either "c_1=0" or "c_2=0". It means that in general "y(x)" is not the solution. It is due to the fact that the equation "yy''+(y')^2=0" is nonlinear. Linear superposition principle holds only for linear differential equations.
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