Question #334011

Verify that 𝑦1(π‘₯) = 1 and 𝑦2(π‘₯) = π‘₯^(1/2) are solutions of the differential equation π‘¦π‘¦β€²β€² + (𝑦′)^2 = 0 for π‘₯ > 0. Then show that 𝑦 = 𝑐1 + 𝑐2π‘₯^(1/2) is not, in general, a solution to the equation. Explain why this does not contradict superposition principle.


1
Expert's answer
2022-04-27T01:22:27-0400

Compute derivatives of y1(x)y_1(x) : (y1(x))β€²=0(y_1(x))'=0, (y1(x))β€²β€²=0.(y_1(x))''=0. Thus, we get: y1(x)(y1(x))β€²β€²+(y1(x)β€²)2=0y_1(x)(y_1(x))''+(y_1(x)')^2=0. Compute derivatives of y2(x)y_2(x): (y2(x))β€²=12xβˆ’12(y_2(x))'=\frac12x^{-\frac12}, (y2(x))β€²β€²=βˆ’14xβˆ’32(y_2(x))''=-\frac14x^{-\frac32}. We get: y2(x)(y2(x))β€²β€²+(y2(x)β€²)2=0y_2(x)(y_2(x))''+(y_2(x)')^2=0.

Consider the function y=c1+c2x12y=c_1+c_2x^{\frac12}. Compute the derivatives: yβ€²=12c2xβˆ’12y'=\frac12c_2x^{-\frac12}, yβ€²β€²=βˆ’14c2xβˆ’32y''=-\frac14c_2x^{-\frac32}. Consider the expression: y(x)(y(x))β€²β€²+(yβ€²)2=βˆ’14c1c2xβˆ’32βˆ’14c22xβˆ’1+14c22xβˆ’1=βˆ’14c1c2xβˆ’32y(x)(y(x))''+(y')^2=-\frac14c_1c_2x^{-\frac32}-\frac14c_2^2x^{-1}+\frac14c_2^2x^{-1}=-\frac14c_1c_2x^{-\frac32}

As we can see, y(x)y(x) is a solution if and only if either c1=0c_1=0 or c2=0c_2=0. It means that in general y(x)y(x) is not the solution. It is due to the fact that the equation yyβ€²β€²+(yβ€²)2=0yy''+(y')^2=0 is nonlinear. Linear superposition principle holds only for linear differential equations.


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