Question #50265

Find the sum of the power series

n from 0 to ∞ ∑ {(-1)^n / (2n)! } . ( z- { pi/2} ) ^2
afterward compute the sum of the series
n from 0 to ∞ ∑ 1 / (2n)!
1

Expert's answer

2015-01-08T09:58:22-0500

A. We have


n=0(1)n(zπ2)2n(2n)!\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n \left(z - \frac{\pi}{2}\right)^{2n}}{(2n)!}


Using the formula for the cosine expansion in a power series n=0(1)nx2n(2n)!\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (-1)^n \frac{x^{2n}}{(2n)!} is easy to see that

If z[zπ2]z \to \left[z - \frac{\pi}{2}\right], then


n=0(1)n(zπ2)2n(2n)!=cos(zπ2)=ei(zπ2)+ei(zπ2)2=eizeiπ2+eizeiπ22={eiπ2=i;eiπ2=i}=ieizieiz2=i2(eizeiz)=i2n=0(1(1)n)inn!zn=i2n=02i2n+1(2n+1)!z2n+1=i2n=02i(1)n(2n+1)!z2n+1=n=0(1)n+1(2n+1)!z2n+1=sinz\begin{aligned} & \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n \left(z - \frac{\pi}{2}\right)^{2n}}{(2n)!} = \cos \left(z - \frac{\pi}{2}\right) = \frac{e^{i\left(z - \frac{\pi}{2}\right)} + e^{-i\left(z - \frac{\pi}{2}\right)}}{2} = \frac{e^{iz} e^{\frac{i\pi}{2}} + e^{-iz} e^{-\frac{i\pi}{2}}}{2} \\ & \quad = \left\{e^{\frac{i\pi}{2}} = i; e^{-\frac{i\pi}{2}} = -i\right\} = \frac{i e^{iz} - i e^{-iz}}{2} = \frac{i}{2} \left(e^{iz} - e^{-iz}\right) = \frac{i}{2} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(1 - (-1)^n) i^n}{n!} z^n \\ & \quad = \frac{i}{2} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{2i^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!} z^{2n+1} = \frac{i}{2} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{2i(-1)^n}{(2n+1)!} z^{2n+1} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{(2n+1)!} z^{2n+1} = \sin z \end{aligned}


B. We have


n=01(2n)!\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n)!}


Using the formula for the hyperbolic cosine expansion in a power series


n=0z2n(2n)!=cschz\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^{2n}}{(2n)!} = \operatorname{csch} z


Let z=1z = 1, then


n=012n(2n)!=n=01(2n)!=csch1\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1^{2n}}{(2n)!} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(2n)!} = \operatorname{csch} 1


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Comments

Assignment Expert
14.01.15, 17:45

Dear vallle. We do not agree that ∑ 1 / (2n)! (the series with positive terms) can be directly obtained from the series ∑ [ (-1)^n. ( z-{pi/2})^n ] / [ (2n)!] (the series with alternating terms). We used the known expansion of hyperbolic cosine function.

Assignment Expert
14.01.15, 17:41

Dear vallle. Thank you for adding information.

vallle
06.01.15, 20:53

B: ∑ 1 / (2n)! means it substituted value (z) in above ∑ [ (-1)^n. ( z-{pi/2})^n ] / [ (2n)!] to get ∑ 1 / (2n)! So should find z value by by 1 / (2n)! = [ (-1)^n. ( z-{pi/2})^n ] / [ (2n)!] then only we should substitute this value in the above Sum to get the final sum of B

vallle
06.01.15, 20:53

For A i need begin from the starter Cos z= ∑ [ (-1)^n ( z)^2n ] / [ (2n)!] Goal :Get the Given power series ∑ [ (-1)^n. ( z-{pi/2})^n ] / [ (2n)!] Should do steps { on both side } but focus in right side to get the given power series, Such { replace z, or multiply ,or dividing or differentiate ,or integral ) each step { on both side } Solution : A Replace each z with : z-(pi /2) in both side, Cos [ z-(pi /2) ] = ∑ [ (-1)^n. ( z-{pi/2})^2n ] / [ (2n)!] then ??

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