Question #252425

If 𝑓(𝑥)=1𝑥, show that 𝑓(𝑎)−𝑓(𝑏)=𝑓(𝑎𝑏/𝑏−𝑎).


1
Expert's answer
2021-10-20T01:15:00-0400

Solution:

Given f(x)=1xf(x)=\dfrac1x

LHS=f(a)f(b)=1a1b=baabLHS=f(a)-f(b) \\=\dfrac1a-\dfrac1b \\=\dfrac{b-a}{ab}

RHS=f(abba)=1abba=baabRHS=f(\dfrac{ab}{b-a}) \\=\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{ab}{b-a}} \\=\dfrac{b-a}{ab}

So, LHS=RHS

Hence, proved.


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