Question #252425

If š‘“(š‘„)=1š‘„, show that š‘“(š‘Ž)āˆ’š‘“(š‘)=š‘“(š‘Žš‘/š‘āˆ’š‘Ž).


Expert's answer

Solution:

Given f(x)=1xf(x)=\dfrac1x

LHS=f(a)āˆ’f(b)=1aāˆ’1b=bāˆ’aabLHS=f(a)-f(b) \\=\dfrac1a-\dfrac1b \\=\dfrac{b-a}{ab}

RHS=f(abbāˆ’a)=1abbāˆ’a=bāˆ’aabRHS=f(\dfrac{ab}{b-a}) \\=\dfrac{1}{\dfrac{ab}{b-a}} \\=\dfrac{b-a}{ab}

So, LHS=RHS

Hence, proved.


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