Let p1,p2,…,pn be distinct pisitive primes. Show that (p1p2…pn)+1 is divisible by none of these primes.
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Expert's answer
2022-06-16T14:58:37-0400
Assume that there exists a prime say pi, where i≤n such that pi divides p1p2…pn+1. Then clearly pi∣p1p2…pn and pi∣p1p2…pn+1 implies that pi∣1=(p1…pn+1)−(p1…pn).
Which is imposible as pi≥2. Hence none of the pi's divides p1p2…pn+1.
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