Question #350752

Let p1,p2,,pnp_1,p_2,\dots,p_n be distinct pisitive primes. Show that (p1p2pn)+1(p_1p_2\dots p_n)+1 is divisible by none of these primes.


1
Expert's answer
2022-06-16T14:58:37-0400

Assume that there exists a prime say pip_i, where ini\leq n such that pip_i divides p1p2pn+1p_1p_2\dots p_n+1. Then clearly pip1p2pnp_i|p_1p_2\dots p_n and pip1p2pn+1p_i|p_1p_2\dots p_n+1 implies that pi1=(p1pn+1)(p1pn)p_i|1=(p_1\dots p_n+1)-(p_1\dots p_n).

Which is imposible as pi2p_i\geq2. Hence none of the pip_i's divides p1p2pn+1p_1p_2\dots p_n+1.


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