Question #160678

Let f is a field. Then prove that (0) is a prime ideal in fm


Expert's answer

We will prove that (0)(0) is the maximal proper ideal and this will imply that it is prime. Suppose that (0)(0) is not maximal, then m,(0)m\exists \mathfrak{m}, (0)\subsetneq \mathfrak{m} a maximal ideal. Then, am,a0\exists a\in \mathfrak{m}, a\neq 0, but this implies that bF,bm,\forall b \in F, b\in \mathfrak{m}, as (ba1)am(b\cdot a^{-1})\cdot a \in \mathfrak{m} and thus bmb\in \mathfrak{m} (FF is a field so for any non-zero element there is an inverse element). Therefore m=F\mathfrak{m} = F and so it is not proper. So we conclude that (0)(0) is a maximal proper ideal and thus is prime.


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