Mr. Malik wants to buy 100 acres lands to construct mega project near Super highway, where he provides high standard of living with security & all facilities are available in this project to his clients. Where 100 acres land belongs to some poor people who live nearby this land, he hires Mr. Owais & provides him Rs.10 Million to vacate same land from these poor people, he threaten these poor people and forcefully make signature on sale agreement. After a week he acquired entire 100 acres lands from these poor people and handed over all land to Mr. Malik & made above mentioned mega project.
In the light of above story following questions has been raised
A Sale agreement from poor people is in written format, does this agreement shows that they sold their respective lands? (Answer must be in Yes or No)
Give reason to support your answer in part a
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Expert's answer
2020-11-27T09:42:40-0500
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