Question #64373
Is inbreeding really efficient at producing homozygosity?
Let us suppose the character we are trying to establish is dominant trait controlled by a biallelic gene and the two individuals (animals) we have selected to inbreed both have the genotypes Aa.
Aa x Aa = AA/ Aa/ aa in the ratio 1:2:1
So the possibility of having a homozygous dominant is 25% while that of heterozygous is 50%. As the breeder has no access to technologies and find out the genotype of the F1 individuals there's a possibility that he would choose two F1 individuals with Aa genotype once again (which has the highest possibility of occurrence). And the same is repeated , production of F2 offsprings with 50% possibility of heterozygous individuals.So getting a homozygous dominant individual is very less likely to happen.
My question, is inbreeding really efficient at producing homozygosity?
Let us suppose the character we are trying to establish is dominant trait controlled by a biallelic gene and the two individuals (animals) we have selected to inbreed both have the genotypes Aa.
Aa x Aa = AA/ Aa/ aa in the ratio 1:2:1
So the possibility of having a homozygous dominant is 25% while that of heterozygous is 50%. As the breeder has no access to technologies and find out the genotype of the F1 individuals there's a possibility that he would choose two F1 individuals with Aa genotype once again (which has the highest possibility of occurrence). And the same is repeated , production of F2 offsprings with 50% possibility of heterozygous individuals.So getting a homozygous dominant individual is very less likely to happen.
My question, is inbreeding really efficient at producing homozygosity?
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