Question #167703

Show that quantum mechanics reduces to classical mechanics for 𝒉 →0


1
Expert's answer
2021-03-01T12:38:57-0500

The wave function of a classical system should have a form Ψ=aeiϕ\Psi = a e^{i\phi} with aa a function that is changing very slowly (as classical mechanics are deterministic), the phase function is related to the action in the classical case as S=ϕS=\phi\cdot \hbar by analogy with the classical optics (Fermat's principe). Now by inserting this form of Ψ\Psi in the Schrodinger's equation we get

atSita+a2m(S)2i2maΔSimSa2mΔa+Va=0a \partial_t S-i\hbar \partial_t a + \frac{a}{2m} (\nabla S)^2 - \frac{i\hbar}{2m}a\Delta S-\frac{i\hbar}{m}\nabla S \nabla a - \frac{\hbar}{2m}\Delta a + Va=0

Now by writing separate equations for the real and imaginary parts (as a and S are real) we get:

tS+12m(S)2+V22maΔa=0\partial_t S + \frac{1}{2m}(\nabla S)^2+V-\frac{\hbar^2}{2ma} \Delta a=0

ta+a2mΔS+1mSa=0\partial_t a + \frac{a}{2m} \Delta S + \frac{1}{m} \nabla S \nabla a=0

The first equation in the limit 0\hbar \to 0 gives us the Hamilton-Jacobi equation that describes the classical mechanics.

The second equation defines classical velocity in the terms of quantum mechanics.


The reference of these calculations is Landau, Lifshitz Quantum Mechanics: Non-Relativistic Theory. Vol. 3.


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