Question #70883

I learned Kepler's second law which was about equal areas and we PROVED that law of areas mathematically and also in his third law we PROVED, mathematically, that the period squared is equal to semi-major axis cubed, but in his first law which is:"All planets move about the Sun in elliptical orbits, having the Sun as one of the foci" we did not PROVE this law. My instructor just said that "as L is constant, which implies that the orbit lies in a plane!" It just says that the orbit lies in a plane, not that it is elliptical which is actually the law. Should not we be proving that the orbit is elliptical with Sun as on of the foci? Or am I missing something?
1

Expert's answer

2017-11-08T14:24:07-0500

Answer on Question #70883 - Physics / Astronomy | Astrophysics

I learned Kepler's second law which was about equal areas and we PROVED that law of areas mathematically and also in his third law we PROVED, mathematically, that the period squared is equal to semi-major axis cubed, but in his first law which is:"All planets move about the Sun in elliptical orbits, having the Sun as one of the foci" we did not PROVE this law. My instructor just said that "as L is constant, which implies that the orbit lies in a plane!" It just says that the orbit lies in a plane, not that it is elliptical which is actually the law. Should not we be proving that the orbit is elliptical with Sun as on of the foci? Or am I missing something?

Solution:

According to the law of universal gravitation:


a=d2rdt2=f(r)r^\boldsymbol {a} = \frac {d ^ {2} \boldsymbol {r}}{d t ^ {2}} = f (r) \hat {\boldsymbol {r}}


In a polar coordination system:


drdt=r˙r^+rθ˙θ^,\frac {d \boldsymbol {r}}{d t} = \dot {r} \hat {\boldsymbol {r}} + r \dot {\theta} \hat {\boldsymbol {\theta}},d2rdt2=(r¨rθ˙2)r^+(rθ¨+2r˙θ˙)θ^\frac {d ^ {2} \boldsymbol {r}}{d t ^ {2}} = (\ddot {r} - r \dot {\theta} ^ {2}) \hat {\boldsymbol {r}} + (r \ddot {\theta} + 2 \dot {r} \dot {\theta}) \hat {\boldsymbol {\theta}}


In a coordination form:


r¨rθ˙2=f(r)\ddot {r} - r \dot {\boldsymbol {\theta}} ^ {2} = f (r)rθ¨+2r˙θ˙=0r \ddot {\theta} + 2 \dot {r} \dot {\theta} = 0


Combining both equations:


rdθ˙dt+2drdtθ˙=0r \frac {d \dot {\theta}}{d t} + 2 \frac {d r}{d t} \dot {\theta} = 0


By simplifying:


dθ˙θ˙=2drr\frac {d \dot {\theta}}{\dot {\theta}} = - 2 \frac {d r}{r}


After integration:


lnθ˙=2ln(r)+ln(l)\ln \dot {\theta} = - 2 \ln (r) + \ln (l)ln(l)=ln(r2)+lnθ˙\ln (l) = \ln (r ^ {2}) + \ln \dot {\theta}l=r2θ˙l = r ^ {2} \dot {\theta}


I is an angular moment l=r×vl = r \times v

Let:


r=1ur = \frac {1}{u}r˙=1u2u˙=1u2dθdtdudθ=ldudθ\dot {r} = - \frac {1}{u ^ {2}} \dot {u} = - \frac {1}{u ^ {2}} \frac {d \theta}{d t} \frac {d u}{d \theta} = - l \frac {d u}{d \theta}r¨=lddtdudθ=lθ˙d2udθ2=l2u2d2udθ2\ddot{r} = -l \frac{d}{dt} \frac{du}{d\theta} = -l \dot{\theta} \frac{d^2 u}{d\theta^2} = -l^2 u^2 \frac{d^2 u}{d\theta^2}


Thus, the equation of movement in r^\hat{\pmb{r}} direction is:


d2udθ2+u=1l2u2f(1u)\frac{d^2 u}{d\theta^2} + u = -\frac{1}{l^2 u^2} f\left(\frac{1}{u}\right)


According to the universal gravitation law:


f(1u)=f(r)=GMr2=GMu2f\left(\frac{1}{u}\right) = f(r) = -\frac{GM}{r^2} = -GM u^2


As a result:


d2udθ2+u=GMl2\frac{d^2 u}{d\theta^2} + u = \frac{GM}{l^2}


The general solution of this equation is:


u=GMl2[1+ecos(θθ0)]u = \frac{GM}{l^2} \left[1 + e \cdot \cos(\theta - \theta_0)\right]


By changing of uu on 1/r1/r and if θ0=0\theta_0 = 0:


r=1u=l2/GM1+ecosθr = \frac{1}{u} = \frac{l^2 / GM}{1 + e \cdot \cos \theta}


Thus, we get an equation of a conical section with ee in a focus. In this way the first Kepler law is originating from the second Newton law and the universal gravitation law.


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Comments

Assignment Expert
13.11.17, 15:28

Math language in Kepler's time was quite different from nowdays and cannot be reproduced here. In fact, Kepler used measurements of Tycho Brahe to get his laws.

Mujtaba Baig
09.11.17, 13:16

Well calculus did not exist in times of Kepler, so say I was living in his time, how would he prove that to me?

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