Question #217025

Prove that the real line is a homeomorphic to the interval (0,1) with the subspace topology


1
Expert's answer
2021-07-19T10:57:06-0400

Let us consider the function f:(0;1)Rf:(0;1)\to \mathbb{R} defined as f(x)=tan(π2+πx)f(x)=\tan (-\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi x)

This function is strictly increasing and thus is injective.

We know that limx0f(x)=limtπ/2tant=\lim_{x\to 0} f(x) = \lim_{t\to -\pi/2} \tan t = -\infty and limx1f(x)=limtπ/2tant=+\lim_{x\to 1} f(x) = \lim_{t\to \pi/2} \tan t = +\infty and therefore it is surjective.

The function xπ/2+πxx\to -\pi/2 +\pi x is continuous on (0;1)(0;1) and the function tant\tan t is continuous on (π/2;π/2)(-\pi/2 ;\pi/2), so ff is continuous on (0;1)(0;1).

Finally, the inverse function defined as g(y)=(arctan(y)+π/2)/πg(y)= (\arctan(y)+\pi/2)/\pi is continuous on the real line R\mathbb{R}. Therefore, the function ff realise a homeomorphism between (0;1)(0;1) and R\mathbb{R}.


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