Let be X the amount of offers. Because we have a deal with independent experiments with two outcomes (offer or not), X is distributed according to the Binomial distribution X∼B(n,p) where n is the amount of possible 'jobs' and p is the probability of success (in our case p=0.48). The PMF function is
fX(k)=Cnkpk(1−p)k where Cnk=k!(n−k)!n! , CDF function can be calculated as
FX(k)=i=0∑kCnipi(1−p)n−i
Part a)
We need to find P(X≥3). Let's rewrite it and use the definition of CDF
P(X≥3)=1−P(X≤2)=1−FX(2) Let's calculate FX(2) (in this case n=9)
FX(2)=0!9!9!0.480⋅0.529+1!8!9!0.4810.528+2!7!9!0.4820.527≈0.11115 Thus
P(X≥3)≈1−0.11115≈0.88885
Part b)
We need to find such minimal n that P(X≥3)=0.95 . Actually, we need to solve the equation
1−i=0∑2Cnipi(1−p)n−i≥0.95 but it's impossible to do without using advenced math (such as incomplete beta-fucntions), so we shall just use brute-force.
We shall calculate FX(2) for dirrerent n (starting with 10) until we have
FX(2)≤1−0.95≤0.05 Let's start with n=10
FX(2)=0!10!10!0.480⋅0.5210+1!9!10!0.4810.529+2!8!10!0.4820.528≈0.07022 It doesn't fit, thus continue with n=11
FX(2)=0!11!11!0.480⋅0.5211+1!10!11!0.4810.5210+2!9!11!0.4820.529≈0.04361 We got it, thus she needs to apply for 11 jobs, and the answer is '2 more'.
Part c)
We need to do the same thing but now we should resolve it for p
FX(2)=i=0∑2Cnipi(1−p)n−i=0.050!9!9!p0(1−p)9+1!8!9!p1(1−p)8+1!7!9!p2(1−p)7=0.05
(1−p)9+9p(1−p)8+36p2(1−p)7=0.05 It is the polynomial equation of 9th degree and can't be solved analytically. Thus let's use Newton's method and rewrite our problem as finding a real root of the function
g(p)=(1−p)9+9p(1−p)8+36p2(1−p)7−0.05 Newton's method says (wery briefly) that we can find the root by iterative process
pk+1=pk−g′(pk)g(pk) and with appropriate initial approximation p0 we can get the solution p=k→∞limpk . We can use p=0.5 as initial approximation (slightly more then our p in the problem). The derivative is g′(p)=−252p2(1−p)6. Calculate
g(p0)=(1−0.5)9+9⋅0.5(1−0.5)8+360.52(1−0.5)7≈0.039844 and
g′(p0)=−252⋅0.52(1−0.5)6≈−0.984375
and we get for the first approximation
p1=p0−g′(p0)g(p0)=0.5−−0.9843750.039844≈0.540476 The same procedure for the second approximation give us
p2≈0.540476−−0.6931110.006085≈0.549≈0.55 We shall stop at this point and approximately says that p≈0.55 , this is the answer.
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