Question #34954

How to prove this theorem:

Let A and B be independent random variable, such that AB is a degenerate random variable. Then A and B are also degenerate.
1

Expert's answer

2013-09-10T11:13:01-0400

The statement given is false.

Let's consider such example:

A is a random variable that equals to 0 with probability 1:


P(A=0)=1P(A = 0) = 1


B is a standard normally distributed variable:


BN(0,1)B \sim N(0, 1)


Then

AB=0AB = 0 with probability 1, so AB is degenerate random variable. But B is not degenerate.

So the given statement is false.

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