Question #339450

Assume that X has a uniform distribution over [0; 1] and that Y has the uniform distribution over


[2; 3]: Which of the following statements are true and which are false? Justify your answers!


(a) P (X < Y) = 1.


(b) Since X is smaller than Y , P (X < 1) > P (Y < 1).


(c) There are some values a for which P (X < a) = P (Y < a).

1
Expert's answer
2022-05-11T11:02:38-0400

(a) The first statement is correct. Suppose that X,Y:ΩRX,Y:\Omega\rightarrow\mathbb{R}. Denote by Ω1Ω\Omega_1\sub\Omega a subset of Ω\Omega such that X(w)[0,1]X(w)\notin[0,1] for all wΩ1w\in\Omega_1. Denote by Ω2Ω\Omega_2\sub\Omega a subset of Ω\Omega such that Y(w)[2,3]Y(w)\notin[2,3], for all wΩ2w\in\Omega_2. Denote by Ω3\Omega_3 a subset of Ω\Omega satisfying X(w)<Y(w)X(w)<Y(w) for all wΩ3w\in\Omega_3. It is clear that Ω3Ω1Ω2\Omega_3\sub\Omega_1\cup\Omega_2. But P(Ω1Ω2)P(Ω1)+P(Ω2)=0P(\Omega_1\cup\Omega_2)\leq P(\Omega_1)+P(\Omega_2)=0. We receive that P(X<Y)=P(Ω3)=0P(X<Y)=P(\Omega_3)=0

(b) P(Y<1)=0P(Y<1)=0, since YY has the uniform distribution over [2,3][2,3]. P(X<1)=1P(X<1)=1. We receive: P(X<1)>P(Y<1).P(X<1)>P(Y<1).

(c) We can take a=0a=0. We get 0=P(X<0)=P(Y<0)0=P(X<0)=P(Y<0). due to the definition of the uniform distribution.


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