Question #171170

Prove or disprove:

a.) If š‘ƒ(š“) = š‘ƒ(šµ) = š‘ then š‘ƒ(š“šµ) ≤ š‘^2 .

b.) If š‘ƒ(š“) = 0 then š‘ƒ(š“šµ) = 0.

c.) If š‘ƒ(š“Ģ…) = š‘Ž and š‘ƒ(šµĢ…) = š‘ then š‘ƒ(š“šµ) ≄ 1 āˆ’ š‘Ž āˆ’ š‘.


Expert's answer

Prove or disprove:

a.) If š‘ƒ(š“) = š‘ƒ(šµ) = š‘ then š‘ƒ(š“šµ) ≤ š‘^2 .

Put B=A, then š‘ƒ(š“) = š‘ƒ(šµ) = š‘, but š‘ƒ(š“šµ)=š‘ƒ(š“) =š‘> š‘^2 (if p is not equal to 0 or 1). The assertion is disproved.


b.) If š‘ƒ(š“) = 0 then š‘ƒ(š“šµ) = 0.

This is true, as ABāŠ‚AAB\subset A and š‘ƒ(š“šµ)ā‰¤š‘ƒ(š“)=0. Therefore š‘ƒ(š“šµ)=0.


c.) If š‘ƒ(š“Ģ…) = š‘Ž and š‘ƒ(šµĢ…) = š‘ then š‘ƒ(š“šµ) ≄ 1 āˆ’ š‘Ž āˆ’ š‘.

False. If we take a=b=0, we would get š‘ƒ(š“šµ) ≄ 1 which contradicts to the inequality š‘ƒ(š“šµ)ā‰¤š‘ƒ(š“)=0.


Need a fast expert's response?

Submit order

and get a quick answer at the best price

for any assignment or question with DETAILED EXPLANATIONS!

LATEST TUTORIALS
APPROVED BY CLIENTS