Question #161946

Consider the following regression of wages (w) on the mean years of schooling of 

workers (s) and the female share in an occupation (p):

π‘™π‘œπ‘”π‘€ = 0.924 + 0.150𝑠 βˆ’ 0.003𝑝

 (0.154) (0.011) (0.0001)

a) Interpret the regression coefficients carefully.

b) How much variations in wages can be explained by the two regressors?

c) Would you reject the hypothesis that workers’ mean years of schooling has no 

influences on wages across professions?


1
Expert's answer
2021-02-22T12:17:10-0500

The Given regression equation is

π‘™π‘œπ‘”π‘€=0.924+0.150π‘ βˆ’0.003π‘π‘™π‘œπ‘”π‘€ = 0.924 + 0.150𝑠 βˆ’ 0.003𝑝

(a) On comparing the given equation with the standard regression equation Y=Ξ²0+Ξ²1x1+Ξ²2x2Y=\beta_0+\beta_1x_1+\beta_2x_2

Regression coeffiecient are as follows.

We get Ξ²1=0.15,Ξ²2=βˆ’0.003\beta_1=0.15, \beta_{2}=-0.003


(b) As the coffiecient Ξ²2\beta_2 is very small So The wage ww is not too much influenced and on changing other coeffecient. The wage w is increased rapidly.


(c) No. The mean year of schooling also affects the wage of the worker since It has a positive regression coefficient. On a small change in mean year of schooling can change the wages.



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