Question #95324
Show that the following series converges :
summation (infinity , n= 1) [ 1/(2n+3)(2n+5)]?
1
Expert's answer
2019-09-27T09:45:10-0400

To prove that the series


n=1+1(2n+3)(2n+5)\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{(2n + 3)(2n + 5)}}}

converges, let's compare it with another series

n=1+1n2\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{{n^2}}}}


We can see that for any n1n \ge 1

1(2n+3)(2n+5)=14n2+16n+15<1n2\frac{1}{{(2n + 3)(2n + 5)}} = \frac{1}{{4{n^2} + 16n + 15}} < \frac{1}{{{n^2}}}

because 4n2+16n+15>n24{n^2} + 16n + 15 > {n^2} for any n1n \ge 1 .

It means that if the series n=1+1n2\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{{n^2}}}} converges, then the series n=1+1(2n+3)(2n+5)\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{(2n + 3)(2n + 5)}}} converges too.

To prove that n=1+1n2\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{{n^2}}}} converges, we can use the Cauchy integral test: in short, the series n=1+f(n)\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {f(n)} converges or diverges simultaneously with the integral 1+f(x)dx\int\limits_1^{ + \infty } {f(x)dx}. Thus, for n=1+1n2\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{{n^2}}}} we get


1+1x2dx=1x1+=1\int\limits_1^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{{x^2}}}dx} = - \left. {\frac{1}{x}} \right|_1^{ + \infty } = 1

So the series n=1+1n2\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{{n^2}}}} converges and then the series

n=1+1(2n+3)(2n+5)\sum\limits_{n = 1}^{ + \infty } {\frac{1}{{(2n + 3)(2n + 5)}}}

converges too by the comparison theorem.


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