Answer on Question #83832 – Math – Real Analysis
Question
Show that n!<n^n, n="">1, by induction.
Solution
We shall prove it by the method of mathematical induction.
1. Take and substitute the inequality, we get: , i.e. , therefore the inequality holds.
2. Let it be true for , where , i.e. .
3. Let us prove the fulfillment of the inequality for , where .
We need to show , or , or . Transform the right hand side of the inequality as follows: . We know that , i.e. always . And, at the same time, we have assumed that , then also will be less than , and then .
4. By the method of mathematical induction, the inequality holds for all .
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