Question 1. Show that f=o(1) as x→a if and only if f(x)→0 as x→a.
Solution. Recall that f(x)=o(g(x)) as x→a iff for any ε>0 there is δ>0, such that ∣f(x)∣≤ε∣g(x)∣ for all x with 0<∣x−a∣<δ. Use this definition in the case when g(x)≡1 and obtain that for any ε>0 there is δ>0 such that ∣f(x)∣≤ε for all x, such that 0<∣x−a∣<δ. By definition of the limit of a function this is the same as limx→af(x)=0.