Question 1. Prove the statement "If f=o(g) then f=O(g)".
Solution. Recall that f(x)=o(g(x)) as x→x0 iff for any ε>0 there is δ>0, such that ∣f(x)∣≤ε∣g(x)∣ for all x, such that ∣x−x0∣<δ. Also recall that f(x)=O(g(x)) iff there are M>0 and δ>0, such that ∣f(x)∣≤M∣g(x)∣ for all x with ∣x−x0∣<δ. Now if f(x)=o(g(x)) as x→x0, then one can fix some ε>0, find the corresponding δ>0 and set M=ε. Then ∣f(x)∣≤M∣g(x)∣ for all x, such that ∣x−x0∣<δ. By definition, this means that f(x)=O(g(x)).