Question #6505

Let f be a function from A into X, and let Y, Z be proper subsets of X. How do I prove
the inverse function of X = A and
the inverse function of (Y') = the inverse function of (Y)"

Expert's answer

Let ff be a function from AA into XX, and let Y,ZY, Z be proper subsets of XX. How do I prove the inverse function of X=AX = A and the inverse function of (Y)=(Y') = the inverse function of (Y)(Y)''.

As there is a function


g(A):AXg(A): A \to X


There must be inverse function


f(X)=g1(A):XAf(X) = g^{-1}(A): X \to A


As YY is a subset of XX then


f(Z)=g1(A):ZA,ZXf(Z) = g^{-1}(A): Z \to A, Z \in Xf(Y)=g1(A):YA,YXf(Y) = g^{-1}(A): Y \to A, Y \in X


But as


Y,ZXY, Z \in X


Then f(Z)f(Z) and f(Y)f(Y) exist.

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