Let f be a function from A into X, and let Y,Z be proper subsets of X. How do I prove the inverse function of X=A and the inverse function of (Y′)= the inverse function of (Y)′′.
As there is a function
g(A):A→X
There must be inverse function
f(X)=g−1(A):X→A
As Y is a subset of X then
f(Z)=g−1(A):Z→A,Z∈Xf(Y)=g−1(A):Y→A,Y∈X
But as
Y,Z∈X
Then f(Z) and f(Y) exist.