Question #37681

If a>0 and b >0 Show that

lim n->infinity squareroot((n+a)(n+b)) -n = (a+b)/2

Expert's answer

Answer on Question 37681 – Math - Real Analysis

If a>0a > 0 and b>0b > 0 show that

limnn1n=0\lim_{n \to \infty} n - \frac{1}{n} = 0.

Solution

1. The sequence 1/n1/n converges to 0 because for given ε>0\varepsilon > 0 we can choose NN such that N>1/εN > 1/\varepsilon. Then for all n>Nn > N, 1/n<ε|1/n| < \varepsilon, so


limn1n=0.\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} = 0.


The sequence 1n\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}} also converges to 0 because for given ε>0\varepsilon > 0 we can choose NN such that N>1/ε2N > 1/\varepsilon^2. Then for all n>Nn > N, 1n<ε\left|\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\right| < \varepsilon, so


limn1n=0.\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}} = 0.


2. If a>0a > 0 and b>0b > 0 then we have two inequalities


1+an1+anand1+bn1+bn\sqrt{1 + \frac{a}{n}} \leq 1 + \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{n}} \quad \text{and} \quad \sqrt{1 + \frac{b}{n}} \leq 1 + \frac{\sqrt{b}}{\sqrt{n}}


Hence,


1(1+an)(1+bn)(1+an)(1+bn).1 \leq \sqrt{\left(1 + \frac{a}{n}\right)\left(1 + \frac{b}{n}\right)} \leq \left(1 + \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{n}}\right) \left(1 + \frac{\sqrt{b}}{\sqrt{n}}\right).


Using (2) and the limit laws for sequences we conclude that


limn(1+an)=limn(1+bn)=1.\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{\sqrt{a}}{\sqrt{n}}\right) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{\sqrt{b}}{\sqrt{n}}\right) = 1.


Hence, by the Squeeze Theorem we can infer


limn(1+an)(1+bn)=1.\lim_{n \to \infty} \sqrt{\left(1 + \frac{a}{n}\right)\left(1 + \frac{b}{n}\right)} = 1.


3. We rationalize the numerator, multiplying by the sum of square roots, and introducing this sum as a denominator, giving


(n+a)(n+b)n=(a+b)n+ab(n+a)(n+b)+n.\sqrt{(n + a)(n + b)} - n = \frac{(a + b)n + ab}{\sqrt{(n + a)(n + b)} + n}.


This expression is an "\frac{\infty}{\infty}" type, and we divide the numerator and denominator by nn to obtain


(n+a)(n+b)n=(a+b)+abn(1+an)(1+bn)+1a+b2as n,\sqrt{(n + a)(n + b)} - n = \frac{(a + b) + \frac{ab}{n}}{\sqrt{\left(1 + \frac{a}{n}\right)\left(1 + \frac{b}{n}\right)} + 1} \rightarrow \frac{a + b}{2} \quad \text{as } n \to \infty,


since using (1) and (3) we can conclude by the limit laws for sequences that the numerator tends to a+ba + b and the denominator tends to 2 as nn \to \infty.

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