Answer on question #34678 – Math – Real Analysis
Show that the length of the curve y = log sec x y = \log \sec x y = log sec x between the points x = 0 x = 0 x = 0 and x = π / 3 x = \pi/3 x = π /3 is log ( 2 + 3 ) \log(2 + \sqrt{3}) log ( 2 + 3 )
Solution
Using the formula
l ( f ) = ∫ a b 1 + ( f ′ ( x ) ) 2 d x l(f) = \int_{a}^{b} \sqrt{1 + \left(f'(x)\right)^2} dx l ( f ) = ∫ a b 1 + ( f ′ ( x ) ) 2 d x
We obtain
l ( y ) = ∫ 0 π / 3 1 + ( ( ln sec x ) ′ ) 2 d x l(y) = \int_{0}^{\pi/3} \sqrt{1 + \left(\left(\ln \sec x\right)'\right)^2} dx l ( y ) = ∫ 0 π /3 1 + ( ( ln sec x ) ′ ) 2 d x ( ln sec x ) ′ = 1 sec x ( sec x ) ′ = cos x ( sin x cos 2 x ) = tan x (\ln \sec x)' = \frac{1}{\sec x} (\sec x)' = \cos x \left(\frac{\sin x}{\cos^2 x}\right) = \tan x ( ln sec x ) ′ = sec x 1 ( sec x ) ′ = cos x ( cos 2 x sin x ) = tan x
Substitute this into (*) we get
l ( y ) = ∫ 0 π 3 1 + ( tan x ) 2 d x = ∫ 0 π 3 1 cos 2 x d x = ∫ 0 π 3 1 cos x d x = ∫ 0 π 3 sec x d x = = ln ∣ sec x + tan x ∣ ∣ 0 π 3 = ln ( 2 + 3 ) . \begin{aligned}
l(y) = & \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \sqrt{1 + (\tan x)^2} dx = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \sqrt{\frac{1}{\cos^2 x}} dx = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \frac{1}{\cos x} dx = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \sec x \, dx = \\
& = \ln |\sec x + \tan x| \Big|_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} = \ln(2 + \sqrt{3}).
\end{aligned} l ( y ) = ∫ 0 3 π 1 + ( tan x ) 2 d x = ∫ 0 3 π cos 2 x 1 d x = ∫ 0 3 π cos x 1 d x = ∫ 0 3 π sec x d x = = ln ∣ sec x + tan x ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 3 π = ln ( 2 + 3 ) .
QED.
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