Question #288610

If y is not zero and x, y belongs to Q then prove that x/y belongs to Q


1
Expert's answer
2022-01-19T15:28:56-0500


Since yQ,y0y\in\mathbb{Q},y≠0 and xQx\in\mathbb{Q}

Note that y0,yQy≠0,y\in\mathbb{Q}     1yQ\implies\frac{1}{y}\in\mathbb{Q}

Since xQx\in\mathbb{Q} and yQy\in\mathbb{Q}

    xyQ\implies xy\in\mathbb{Q}

Then 1y.(xy)=(1y.x)y=(xy)y=xQ\frac{1}{y}.(xy)=(\frac{1}{y}.x)y=(\frac{x}{y})y=x\in\mathbb{Q}

Since set of rational numbers is closed under multiplication

    xyQ\implies\frac{x}{y}\in\mathbb{Q}






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