Answer to Question #264938 in Real Analysis for abc

Question #264938

Β Show that the series βˆ‘ (βˆ’1)^𝑛. (π‘₯^2+𝑛)/𝑛^2( 𝑛=1 to ∞) is uniformly convergent on every bounded interval, but it does not converge absolutely for any value of π‘₯.


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